100% Pass Guaranteed Accurate 220-1201 Answers 365 Days Free Updates
220-1201 DUMPS Q&As with Explanations Verified & Correct Answers
NEW QUESTION # 310
An office manager wants to block all outbound internet traffic but continue to enable all inbound traffic.
Which of the following should a technician configure to achieve this goal?
- A. MAC filtering
- B. Firewall
- C. Network interface card
- D. Switch
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
A firewall allows for detailed traffic control, including blocking outbound connections while allowing inbound ones. This is contrary to typical security setups, but it can be configured via advanced firewall rules.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 220-1201 Official Study Guide, Section: Firewall ConfigurationFirewalls can allow inbound traffic and deny outbound connections based on configured rules.
NEW QUESTION # 311
A technician connects a network printer to a SOHO router. The technician configures several workstations to send print jobs to the printer's network address. After several days, users report that they are no longer able to use the printer. Which of the following should the technician use to resolve the issue and prevent it from reoccurring?
- A. APIPA
- B. USB cable
- C. Static IP
- D. Network gateway
Answer: C
Explanation:
The printer likely received a different IP address from the router's DHCP service after a lease renewal. Assigning a static IP ensures the printer keeps the same address, preventing connectivity issues for configured workstations.
NEW QUESTION # 312
A user reported performance issues on a computer after a recent OS update A technician is confident that rolling back the system will resolve the issue. Which of the following steps should the technician take next?
- A. Initiate the system restore
- B. Investigate any recent infrastructure changes.
- C. Document the findings.
- D. Verify full system functionality.
Answer: A
Explanation:
C . Initiate the system restore:
If the technician is confident that rolling back the system to a previous restore point will resolve the issue, the next logical step is to initiate the System Restore process.
System Restore allows the system to revert to a state before the OS update, which can eliminate the performance issues caused by the update.
Incorrect Options:
A . Document the findings: Documentation is important but should occur after resolving the issue.
B . Investigate any recent infrastructure changes: This is unnecessary if the issue is already attributed to the OS update.
D . Verify full system functionality: This step should be performed after the System Restore is completed.
Key Takeaway: When confident that rolling back will resolve the issue, the technician should proceed with initiating a System Restore to revert the OS.
NEW QUESTION # 313
Which of the following characteristics differentiates DDR4 RAM from DDR3 RAM?
- A. Lower operating voltage
- B. Increased DIMM width
- C. Higher latency
- D. Single-sided modules
Answer: A
Explanation:
DDR4 RAM operates at a lower voltage than DDR3, which reduces power consumption and heat generation while improving overall energy efficiency.
NEW QUESTION # 314
Which of the following storage options would a technician most likely recommend to have large amounts of affordable capacity without concern for read times on a desktop computer?
- A. 2TB SATA 3.5" 5,400rpm HDD
- B. 2x 1TB PCIe SSD in RAID 1
- C. 750GB NVMe M.2 SSD
- D. 4TB SAS 2.5" 15,000rpm HDD
Answer: A
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
If performance isnot a primary concernand the user requireslarge, cost-effective storage, a2TB 5400rpm SATA HDDis ideal. It offers high capacity at a lower price point than SSDs and faster HDDs.
* Option A:NVMe drives offer exceptional speed but are significantly more expensive per GB and not necessary when read/write speed is not a concern.
* Option B:RAID 1 improves redundancy but cuts usable capacity in half and uses expensive SSDs.
* Option D:SAS drives are fast and reliable but are enterprise-grade and expensive - overkill for desktop use.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
* Objective 1.3: Given a scenario, install and configure storage devices.
NEW QUESTION # 315
Which of the following is an example of VDI?
- A. Launching a virtual machine server on a hypervisor
- B. Provisioning a sandbox as a test environment
- C. Providing high-performance workstations with a local OS
- D. Streaming a GUI to thin clients from a server
Answer: D
Explanation:
VDI hosts desktop environments centrally on a server and delivers the user interface over the network to thin clients - exactly what streaming a GUI to thin clients describes.
NEW QUESTION # 316
Which of the following should a company use to implement automatic time synchronization?
- A. UTM
- B. DHCP
- C. NTP
- D. AAA
Answer: C
Explanation:
NTP (Network Time Protocol) is specifically designed to synchronize the clocks of networked computers and devices automatically.
From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.6 - Network services and protocols:
"NTP is used to automatically synchronize system clocks on network devices, ensuring all systems have accurate time." Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Protocols CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.6
NEW QUESTION # 317
A technician needs to run cable for a new office through a drop ceiling. Which of the following cable types should the technician run?
- A. Plenum
- B. BNC
- C. Fiber-optic
- D. Coaxial
Answer: A
Explanation:
Plenum-rated cable is designed for use in air-handling spaces such as drop ceilings and meets fire safety requirements by producing less toxic smoke and resisting flame spread.
NEW QUESTION # 318
A technician needs to provide a new employee with a phone number for their company mobile phone number. Which of the following is the most cost-effective and professional way to complete this task?
- A. Forward a company number to the employee's mobile phone.
- B. Give a company mobile phone to the employee.
- C. Offer a company SIM card to the employee.
- D. Issue a company eSIM to the employee.
Answer: D
Explanation:
An eSIM allows provisioning a company phone number digitally without issuing additional physical hardware, making it a cost-effective and professional solution while maintaining separation of business and personal use.
NEW QUESTION # 319
A technician must upgrade a computer system to improve its overall processing performance. Which of the following should the technician focus on to ensure maximum system performance?
- A. Integrated GPU
- B. Clock frequency
- C. Voltage regulator module
- D. Power connectors
Answer: B
Explanation:
Clock frequency is one of the most significant factors influencing a computer system's processing performance. According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) CPU and performance objectives, clock speed-measured in gigahertz (GHz)-determines how many instruction cycles a processor can perform per second.
Higher clock frequencies generally result in faster execution of instructions, leading to improved performance in both single-threaded and multi-threaded workloads. While modern CPUs also rely on core count, cache size, and architecture efficiency, clock frequency remains a primary metric for evaluating raw processing speed.
An integrated GPU affects graphics performance rather than overall CPU processing capability. Power connectors ensure proper electrical delivery but do not directly improve processing performance. The voltage regulator module (VRM) stabilizes and regulates power supplied to the CPU but does not itself increase processing speed.
CompTIA expects candidates to recognize clock frequency as a key determinant of CPU performance when upgrading or comparing processors.
Reference:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide - CPU Architecture and Performance
NEW QUESTION # 320
A technician is installing a wireless access point and is required to run all cabling and make patch cords if necessary.
INSTRUCTIONS
Part 1
For each cable type, click the (+) to select the appropriate connector and tool.
part 2
An access point was moved and no longer has connectivity. Connect the access point, patch panel, and switch by clicking the (+) to select the appropriate cable end for each corresponding location to create a link.
The link will be visible after making the second selection of each pair.
Cable ends may be used multiple times, and all placeholders will be filled.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution below in Explanation.
Explanation:
Check the exhibit diagram for both parts.
A close-up of several cables AI-generated content may be incorrect.
Part 2
A group of different colored rectangular objects AI-generated content may be incorrect.
NEW QUESTION # 321
A company wants to enable access to corporate email on smartphones. Employees will choose from a list of supported devices but must install software that separates corporate and personal data. Which of the following should the company implement to achieve this goal?
- A. Endpoint protection
- B. Encryption
- C. Mobile device management
- D. Network access control
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct solution for this scenario is Mobile Device Management (MDM). According to CompTIA Core 1 (220-1201) mobile device security and management objectives, MDM is specifically designed to manage, secure, and enforce policies on mobile devices used to access corporate resources.
MDM solutions allow organizations to require employees to install management software on their smartphones before accessing corporate email. One of the key features of MDM is data separation, often referred to as containerization, which keeps corporate data isolated from personal data on the same device.
This ensures that company information remains secure while still allowing employees to use their devices for personal purposes.
Encryption alone protects data but does not enforce separation or centralized control. Network access control (NAC) restricts which devices can connect to a network but does not manage data on the device itself.
Endpoint protection focuses on malware prevention and threat detection, not policy enforcement or data separation.
CompTIA emphasizes MDM as the primary solution for BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) and corporate mobile access scenarios, making it the most suitable and complete answer for this requirement.
References:CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) Official Study Guide - Mobile Device Management (MDM), BYOD Policies, and Mobile Security
NEW QUESTION # 322
An employee's screen keeps flashing. Sometimes the picture goes out and comes back. The employee checks the power cord and confirms the device is plugged in fully. Which of the following should a technician check for first?
- A. Loose video cable
- B. Failing graphics card
- C. Conflicting drivers
- D. Swollen motherboard capacitor
Answer: A
Explanation:
Intermittent display issues, such as a screen flashing on and off, are most commonly caused by a loose or faulty video cable connection. If the power cable is confirmed secure, the next logical step is to check the video (data) cable between the monitor and the computer.
From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 - Troubleshoot common hardware problems:
"Common video issues include intermittent display or loss of picture. The most likely causes are a loose or faulty video cable or connector. Check all cable connections before troubleshooting internal components." Verified Source:
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Troubleshooting Hardware Problems CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1
NEW QUESTION # 323
Which of the following best represents the purpose of NFC?
- A. Wired connections between several devices
- B. Wireless connections between multiple devices at once
- C. Direct connection of two computers for file sharing
- D. Short-distance wireless connections between two devices
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:
NFC (Near-Field Communication) is a subset of RFID technology designed for very short-range wireless communication, typically within a few centimeters. It is primarily used for contactless transactions, like mobile payments, and can also support peer-to-peer data exchanges. NFC operates at 13.56 MHz and enables devices to communicate when placed near each other.
#Reference: "CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide" by Quentin Docter - Chapter 7, "Wireless and SOHO Networks", page 400.
NEW QUESTION # 324
Which of the following best describes the benefits of cloud computing in the context of business operations?
- A. It offers complete control over physical servers to the IT team.
- B. It removes the need for software licenses for on-premises deployments.
- C. It delivers on-premises data storage for sensitive information.
- D. It provides elasticity, allowing businesses to scale resources up or down easily.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Cloud computing provides elasticity, enabling businesses to dynamically scale resources based on demand, which improves efficiency and cost management.
NEW QUESTION # 325
Which of the following RAM characteristics allows for recovery from data faults in memory modules?
- A. Parity
- B. ECC
- C. Capacity
- D. DDR
- E. Speed
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. ECC (Error-Correcting Code).
In the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) hardware objectives, RAM types and features include technologies designed to improve reliability and data integrity.
ECC memory is specifically designed to detect and correct data errors (faults) in memory automatically. It uses additional bits to store error-checking information, allowing the system to:
Detect single-bit and some multi-bit errors
Automatically correct errors without system interruption
Improve system stability, especially in servers and critical systems
This makes ECC the best choice for recovering from data faults.
Why the other options are incorrect:
A). Capacity
Capacity refers to how much data the RAM can hold (e.g., 8GB, 16GB). It has nothing to do with error detection or correction.
B). Speed
Speed (measured in MHz or MT/s) affects performance but does not provide any fault recovery capability.
D). DDR
DDR (Double Data Rate) refers to the generation/type of RAM (e.g., DDR3, DDR4, DDR5). It improves performance but does not handle errors.
E). Parity
Parity memory can detect errors but cannot correct them. Since the question specifically asks for recovery from faults, ECC is the correct answer because it both detects and corrects errors.
Final answer: C. ECC
NEW QUESTION # 326
Which of the following is an advantage of using a hybrid cloud instead of a public cloud?
- A. Ability to leverage IaaS and PaaS
- B. Ability to meet data residency requirements
- C. Ability to use cross-platform virtualization
- D. Ability to reduce management overhead
Answer: B
Explanation:
A hybrid cloud combines on-premises infrastructure with public cloud services. One significant advantage is that it allows organizations to keep sensitive data in a private environment to meet regulatory or data residency requirements, while still utilizing the scalability and cost-efficiency of the public cloud for other workloads. This ensures compliance with legal mandates about data location.
NEW QUESTION # 327
A technician is troubleshooting a PoE phone that will not turn on. When a laptop is plugged directly into the switchport for the phone the technician sees a data link LED and activity. Which of the following tools should the technician use to verify PoE availability to the phone?
- A. Network tap
- B. Toner probe
- C. Cable tester
- D. Loopback plug
Answer: C
Explanation:
A cable tester capable of testing Power over Ethernet (PoE) functionality can verify whether the switchport is providing the required power to the phone. This tool measures both the presence of data and the voltage or wattage being provided through the Ethernet cable. This is the most effective way to confirm that PoE is available on the port.
NEW QUESTION # 328
Marketing department users report network performance degradation in the morning and early afternoon, but sales and customer service department users do not report any issues. All structured cabling Is Cat 5e. All departments are connected to a core switch. The running network configuration shows the following:
Which of the following is the most likely cause of the performance issues?
- A. The marketing department Interface is running at 10/100.
- B. The marketing department subnet has an error.
- C. The interfaces are configured with Incorrect IP addresses.
- D. The structured Cat 5e cabling is outdated.
Answer: A
Explanation:
From the configuration, the Sales and Customer Service ports are hard-set to full duplex, 1000 Mbps, while the Marketing interface (GigabitEthernet0/3) is set to duplex auto and speed auto. CompTIA A+ explains that mismatched or lower-negotiated speeds and duplex settings can cause noticeable network slowdowns, collisions, and retransmissions-especially at busy times of the day when utilization is high.
Because all cabling is Cat 5e, it fully supports Gigabit Ethernet, so the cabling is not the limiting factor. The IP addresses are all in the same subnet (192.168.1.0/24) and formatted correctly, so there is no subnet or addressing problem. That rules out options A and C.
With speed auto, the Marketing port may be negotiating only 10/100 Mbps, or even a duplex mismatch (e.g., half duplex vs full). This would severely limit throughput compared to the gigabit links used by the other departments. In peak periods, that slower link would become congested first, which matches the users' reports of performance degradation only in Marketing.
Therefore, the most likely cause is that the Marketing interface is operating at 10/100 instead of 1000 Mbps, making option D correct.
NEW QUESTION # 329
Which of the following DNS records displays the destination of incoming email on a domain?
- A. CNAME
- B. TXT
- C. MX
- D. AAAA
Answer: C
Explanation:
DNS contains different record types that serve specific purposes. To determine where incoming email should be delivered for a particular domain, DNS uses an MX (Mail Exchange) record. CompTIA A+ identifies MX records as essential for routing mail from external senders to the appropriate mail server assigned to a domain.
The MX record specifies:
* The mail server hostname responsible for receiving messages
* Priority values, which determine which server to try first
* The server destination for SMTP traffic
When someone sends an email, the sending mail server queries DNS to find the MX record for the recipient's domain. The SMTP server then relays the email to the server listed in that record.
CNAME is used for aliasing hostnames, TXT is used for verification/security (SPF, DKIM), and AAAA maps a hostname to an IPv6 address. None of these direct email delivery. Only MX records are designed to instruct mail servers where to deliver incoming email.
Thus, the correct answer is MX.
NEW QUESTION # 330
......
220-1201 dumps Exam Material with 638 Questions: https://www.vceengine.com/220-1201-vce-test-engine.html
220-1201 Questions and Answers Guarantee you Oass the Test Easily: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1baX82R5INKXyIaBSI3_gGgGxvy4x9b5m
