156-315.82 Actual Questions - Instant Download 130 Questions
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NEW QUESTION # 25
What does the Firewall administrator need to do when Management servers are in a Collision Mode?
- A. manually re-synchronize the servers
- B. nothing, server will re-synchronize in next synchronization interval
- C. run cpstop; cpstart command in CLI on both servers
- D. reboot both servers
Answer: A
Explanation:
When Management Servers enter Collision Mode, both servers assume the active role simultaneously. The administrator must manually re-synchronize the servers to resolve conflicts and restore proper active-standby operation.
NEW QUESTION # 26
Where can a Firewall administrator configure VPN routes between Security Gateways?
- A. VTI_route.conf on the Security Management Server
- B. Via Gaia Portal or CLI on the Security Gateway
- C. vpn_route.conf on the Security Gateway
- D. vpn_route.conf on the Security Management Server
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer isA. For Domain-Based Site-to-Site VPN routing that cannot be fully expressed through the SmartConsole VPN community options, the administrator edits the relevant vpn_route.conf file on theSecurity Management Serveror Domain Management Server, then installs policy. Check Point's R82 Security Management Administration Guide states that the vpn_route.conf files contain the configuration for Domain-Based Site-to-Site VPN and gives the location on an R82 Security Management Server as $FWDIR
/conf/vpn_route.conf. Option B is wrong for this specific question because Gaia routing controls operating- system routes, not the Check Point domain-based VPN routing table. Option C is fabricated; VTI_route.conf is not the file used. Option D is the common trap: the configuration file is managed on the Management Server side, not manually edited on each gateway in a centrally managed environment. Reference topic:
Location of vpn_route.conf Files on the Management Server / Domain-Based VPN Routing.
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NEW QUESTION # 27
While working in the Compliance tab, you have identified under Security Best Practices Compliance a score of 25% for Poor. You click on Poor to review the Security Best Practices with status Poor. What should you do next?
- A. Change the status of each Best Practice to Good.
- B. After reviewing, right-click each Active Best Practice and click Correct and deactivate. The Copilot will configure the settings according to Best Practices.
- C. Analyze each Best Practice, review the details, investigate, and take action where possible.
- D. Deactivate each Poor Best Practice and add a comment before clicking OK.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer isC. A Poor score in the Compliance Blade means the administrator must investigate the failed Security Best Practices and take corrective action where appropriate. The Compliance Blade uses Continuous Compliance Monitoring to examine gateways, blades, policies, and configuration settings against regulatory standards and Check Point security best practices. It also suggests corrective measures when deficiencies are found. Option A is bad administration; deactivating poor practices hides the problem instead of correcting it. Option B is impossible because the administrator does not simply mark a failed best practice as Good. Option D is fabricated; there is no general "Copilot will configure everything" correction workflow in the official Compliance Blade behavior. The correct operational response is to analyze, review, and remediate.
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NEW QUESTION # 28
Which technology family does ElasticXL belong to?
- A. Scalable Platforms
- B. ClusterXL
- C. SecurePlatform
- D. SyncXL
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer isB. ElasticXL belongs to theScalable Platformstechnology family. Check Point's R82 Scalable Platforms Administration Guide states that the guide covers products based on Scalable Platform technology, includingElasticXL Cluster, Quantum Maestro, and Quantum Scalable Chassis. ElasticXL is not merely traditional ClusterXL under another name; it is a scalable-platform implementation designed to provide simplified management, horizontal scaling, high availability, and load distribution through a Single Management Object model. Option A is wrong because ClusterXL is the legacy clustering technology family, while ElasticXL is positioned as a scalable-platform alternative. Option C is wrong because SecurePlatform was an older operating system family and is irrelevant to R82 ElasticXL. Option D is not a Check Point product family; synchronization is a function, not the technology family. For CCSE R82, map it cleanly:
ElasticXL Cluster = Scalable Platforms, not legacy ClusterXL. Reference topic:R82 Scalable Platforms Administration Guide / Products based on Scalable Platform technology.
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NEW QUESTION # 29
Which blade can suggest corrective measures to help with security issues?
- A. SmartEvent
- B. Monitoring Blade
- C. Compliance Blade
- D. VPN
Answer: C
Explanation:
The Compliance Blade analyzes the security posture and generates recommendations or corrective actions to address policy violations, misconfigurations, and other security issues to help maintain compliance.
NEW QUESTION # 30
What is the CLI command to check the Deployment Agent Built Number?
- A. show installer version
- B. show installer status
- C. show deployment agent --version
- D. show deployment agent -v
Answer: C
Explanation:
The command show deployment agent --version is used in CLI to display the build number and version information of the Check Point Deployment Agent installed on the system.
NEW QUESTION # 31
Choose the best answer about IKEv2.
- A. IKEv2 does not use the same phase concept as IKEv1.
- B. IKEv2 uses a two-phase concept like IKEv1; they are called Parent and Child.
- C. IKEv2 uses a two-phase concept like IKEv1; they are called Main and Aggressive.
- D. IKEv2 uses a two-phase concept like IKEv1; they are called Main and Quick.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer isAin the context of the exam's terminology, but the wording is not technically perfect.
IKEv2 does not use IKEv1's Main Mode, Aggressive Mode, and Quick Mode structure. Instead, IKEv2 establishes an IKE Security Association and then one or more Child Security Associations. Many training materials describe these asParent SAandChild SA, where the parent protects the IKE control exchange and the child protects the actual IPsec data traffic. Check Point's R82 VPN documentation confirms that Main Mode and Aggressive Mode apply specifically toIKEv1, and it separately describes IKEv2 support as an alternative encryption negotiation mode. Options B and C are clearly wrong because Main, Aggressive, and Quick are IKEv1 terms. Option D is technically defensible in strict protocol language, but because the answer set includes Parent/Child terminology, option A is the intended CCSE answer. The safe exam interpretation is:
IKEv1 uses Phase 1/Phase 2; IKEv2 maps that concept to Parent/Child SA terminology.
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NEW QUESTION # 32
Bob was tasked by his security team lead to enhance their existing Primary Security Management solution by deploying a Management High Availability solution. What server component is required?
- A. Secondary Management Server
- B. Log Server
- C. SmartEvent Server
- D. Security Gateway
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer isDbecause Management High Availability requires a Secondary Security Management Server to act as a synchronized standby peer for the Primary Security Management Server. The purpose of Management HA is redundancy and database backup for management servers. Check Point documentation states that synchronized servers share the same management database content, including policies, rules, user definitions, network objects, and system configuration settings. A Log Server, Security Gateway, or SmartEvent Server can exist in the overall Check Point deployment, but none of them provides Management HA for the Security Management Server itself. A Security Gateway enforces policy; it does not replicate the management database. SmartEvent correlates logs and events; it does not serve as a standby Security Management Server. A Log Server stores logs but does not take over the Management Server role. Therefore, to extend a single Primary Management Server into a Management HA deployment, the required component is aSecondary Management Server. Reference topic:Installing a Secondary Security Management Server in Management High Availability.
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NEW QUESTION # 33
Which Check Point process provides logging services, such as forwarding logs from Gateway to Log Server, providing Log Export API (LEA) & Event Logging API (ELA) services.
- A. FWD
- B. DASSERVICE
- C. CPVIEWD
- D. CPD
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 34
As part of the SmartEvent Initial Settings, which option is not automatically configured initially and needs to be configured manually during deployment?
- A. SmartEvent Servers
- B. Correlation Units
- C. Internal Networks
- D. Offline Jobs
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer isC. The Internal Network must be configured deliberately so SmartEvent can correctly classify traffic and events as internal or external. Check Point documentation identifies adding objects to the Internal Network as a SmartEvent General Settings task and describes the SmartEvent GUI as the client used for initial settings, including Correlation Unit, Log Server, domains, and Internal Network configuration. This is not something an administrator should assume is always correctly derived from topology or private IP addressing. Option A is wrong because Correlation Units are part of the SmartEvent deployment component configuration. Option B is wrong because Offline Jobs are a feature used to process historical logs, not the core initial boundary definition required for event direction. Option D is wrong because SmartEvent Server configuration is part of deployment. The tested weak point is that SmartEvent's analysis quality depends heavily on accurate Internal Network definition. If the Internal Network is left incomplete, event direction, dashboards, and reports can misrepresent where activity originated. Reference topic:SmartEvent Initial Settings / Internal Network Configuration.
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NEW QUESTION # 35
What is correct regarding the target device for deploying SmartEvent components?
- A. SmartEvent is just a blade on the Security Management Server and can be activated on a Primary or Secondary SMS only.
- B. SmartEvent is always a dedicated standalone exclusive device.
- C. SmartEvent can be integrated with the Security Management Server or deployed on a dedicated Log or SmartEvent Server.
- D. SmartEvent works by correlating logs; hence, it has to be deployed on each Log Server. If any Log Server does not include SmartEvent components, then its logs will not be correlated.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer isD. SmartEvent is flexible in deployment. Check Point R82 documentation states that SmartEvent can be enabled on the Security Management Server, and it also documents how to connect a dedicated SmartEvent Server and SmartEvent Correlation Unit to the Security Management Server. That means SmartEvent is not restricted to only Primary/Secondary Security Management Servers, nor is it always forced into a dedicated standalone appliance. Option A is too narrow because it ignores dedicated SmartEvent deployment. Option B is wrong because SmartEvent correlation does not require every Log Server to become a SmartEvent Server; correlation units and log servers are configured as components of the SmartEvent system. Option C is also wrong because SmartEvent can be integrated into the management deployment where supported. In production, the best design depends on log volume, event correlation load, retention needs, and management-server sizing, but the product supports both integrated and dedicated deployment models. Reference topic:Deploying SmartEvent / Connecting SmartEvent to the Security Management Server.
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NEW QUESTION # 36
What should be upgraded first in the Advanced Upgrade method?
- A. Primary Management Server
- B. Dedicated Log Server
- C. Security Gateway
- D. Secondary Management Server
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer isC. In a Management High Availability environment, thePrimary Security Management Servermust be upgraded first. Check Point's R82 Installation and Upgrade Guide is explicit: before upgrading other servers in Management HA, make sure the Primary Security Management Server is upgraded and running. The procedure then lists step 1 as upgrading the Primary Security Management Server with one of the supported methods, such as CPUSE, Advanced Upgrade, or Migration, and step 2 as upgrading the Secondary Security Management Server. This sequencing protects the management database authority and avoids creating a situation where secondary systems are upgraded before the primary management role is stable. Option A is wrong because Dedicated Log Servers follow the management upgrade strategy and must match compatibility requirements afterward. Option B is wrong because Secondary Management is not first.
Option D is wrong because Security Gateways are upgraded after the Management Servers that control them.
Reference topic:Upgrading Security Management Servers in Management High Availability from R80.20 and higher.
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NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following commands is correct when importing a database?
- A. migrate_server -v R82 /Path/ExportFileName
- B. import database -v R82 /Path/ExportFileName
- C. migrate_server import -v R82 /Path/ExportFileName
- D. migrate import -v R82 /Path/ExportFileName
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer isB. In R82, the correct utility for importing a management database exported from another Management Server ismigrate_server importwith the target version specified by -v R82. The official R82 CLI Reference Guide shows the syntax from Expert mode as ./migrate_server import -v R82 ... / < Full Path > / < Name of Exported File > .tgz. Option A is wrong because migrate is the older command used for older database migration scenarios and is not the correct R82 command for R80.20 and higher management database migration. Option C is not a valid Check Point command. Option D is incomplete because it omits the required import operation. The corrected command should be interpreted as running from $FWDIR
/scripts/ in Expert mode: ./migrate_server import -v R82 / < Full Path > / < Name of Exported File > .tgz. For the exam, the key phrase ismigrate_server import -v R82, not migrate import.
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NEW QUESTION # 38
CoreXL is NOT supported when one of the following features is enabled:
- A. IPS
- B. Overlapping NAT
- C. Route-based VPN
- D. IPv6
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 39
In the Management HA environment, how many synchronization methods are supported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer isD. Management High Availability supportstwo synchronization methods:
synchronization manually and synchronization on a schedule/automatic interval. Check Point's R82 Installation and Upgrade Guide states that Management HA databases are synchronized "manually or on a schedule." The Security Management Administration Guide also explains that the Active server synchronizes with Standby servers at intervals and when the SmartConsole session is published. Option A is too narrow because synchronization is not only manual. Option B and C overstate the number of supported synchronization methods. For exam purposes, reduce it to the clean model:manual synchronizationandscheduled/automatic synchronization.
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NEW QUESTION # 40
What is true regarding the number of involved Management Servers in a Management High Availability environment?
- A. You can have one Primary Management Server and one Secondary Management Server.
- B. You can have one Primary Management Server and one or more Secondary Management Server(s).
- C. You can have multiple Primary Management Servers behind a Load Balancer, such as the Logical Server, but in this scenario, you can only use Round Robin as the distribution mechanism.
- D. You can have multiple Primary Management Servers in a Load Sharing Mode HA environment.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer isAbecause Check Point Management High Availability is built around one Primary Security Management Server and one or more Secondary Security Management Servers. The R82 Security Management Administration Guide defines a Management HA environment as havingone Active Security Management Serverandone or more Standby Security Management Servers. This is the important design point: Check Point supports multiple standby peers for redundancy and database backup, but it does not support multiple Primary Management Servers as a load-sharing management design. The first server installed is the Primary; additional servers are configured as Secondary and normally operate as Standby until an administrator promotes one to Active. Option B is wrong because Management HA is not a load-sharing management-server model. Option C is too restrictive because one Secondary is not the maximum. Option D is fabricated; Management HA is not implemented by placing Primary Management Servers behind a generic load balancer. Reference topic:Management High Availability / The High Availability Environment.
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NEW QUESTION # 41
Which Management Server is Primary?
- A. It's the first installed Management Server
- B. It's the Management Server with the highest firmware version and JHF
- C. It's the every Management Server that is not Standby
- D. It's the current Active Management Server
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Primary Management Server is defined as the first installed Management Server in a Management High Availability deployment, serving as the original source for the management database and initial synchronization setup, regardless of whether it is currently active or standby.
NEW QUESTION # 42
Under which circumstances are automatic scans performed for Continuous Compliance Monitoring?
- A. Every time the FWD or CPM service on the gateway is restarted.
- B. Daily and when SmartConsole changes are published.
- C. Every time the CPM and CPD processes are restarted.
- D. Daily and weekly.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer isC. Continuous Compliance Monitoring is designed to continuously evaluate the managed Check Point environment, and automatic scans are triggered both on a regular schedule and after relevant management changes are published from SmartConsole. The Compliance Blade examines Security Gateways, Software Blades, policies, and configuration settings against best practices and standards, so it must respond when the management database changes. Option A is wrong because restarting CPM and CPD is not the normal compliance-scan trigger. Option B is also wrong because gateway daemon restarts are not the stated Compliance Blade trigger model. Option D is incomplete because it mentions periodic scans but omits the important publish-triggered scan behavior after SmartConsole changes. The operational logic is simple: a daily scan catches drift over time, while a publish-triggered scan evaluates newly committed management changes. For CCSE, connect Compliance Blade scanning todaily checks plus SmartConsole Publish actions, not service restarts. Reference topic:Compliance Blade / Continuous Compliance Monitoring and policy/configuration evaluation.
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NEW QUESTION # 43
Select the most appropriate statement regarding the Management HA Solution.
- A. After installing the Primary Management Server, one or more Secondary Management Servers may be installed for redundancy and database backup
- B. After installing the Primary Management Server, only one Secondary Management Server can be deployed in the same environment
- C. A Management Server running in the Active mode is called the Primary Management Server
- D. The Management Server which is nearest to a Security Gateway becomes its Primary Management Server
Answer: A
Explanation:
In a Management HA setup, after deploying the Primary Management Server, one or more Secondary Management Servers can be added to provide redundancy and maintain synchronized copies of the management database for failover purposes.
NEW QUESTION # 44
Alice and Bob are tasked by their security team lead with deploying Advanced Security Monitoring for all their Check Point Security systems. Which of the features and capabilities of SmartEvent is included?
- A. Low threat visibility
- B. Medium threat visibility
- C. Full threat visibility
- D. High threat visibility
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer isA. SmartEvent is Check Point's event-management and correlation capability for security monitoring, and Check Point describes it as providingfull threat visibilitythrough a single view into security risks. It correlates large volumes of logs into meaningful security events, supports dashboards and reports, and gives administrators a consolidated view for investigation and response. Options B, C, and D are wrong because "medium," "low," and "high" threat visibility are not product capability names. They sound like severity levels or marketing variants, but they are not the SmartEvent feature being tested. The phrase
"Full Threat Visibility" is the actual Check Point SmartEvent positioning and is directly tied to event management, reporting, event investigation, compliance, and security-risk visibility. In practical CCSE terms, SmartEvent is not simply a log viewer. It adds correlation, event policy, monitoring views, reporting, and analyst workflow on top of raw logging, giving the organization a more complete operational security picture.
Reference topic:SmartEvent / Full Threat Visibility.
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NEW QUESTION # 45
What is the default network for Sync?
- A. 192.0.0.0/24
- B. 192.0.2.0/24
- C. 192.168.2.0/24
- D. 10.0.2.0/24
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer isA. ElasticXL automatically configures the Sync network to192.0.2.0/24. Check Point's R82 ElasticXL important notes state this directly. The Sync interfaces of all ElasticXL Cluster Members in the same cluster must connect to the same Layer 2 broadcast domain, usually a dedicated Layer 2 switch or VLAN. The Sync interface must not be configured as a VLAN trunk, and only one ElasticXL Cluster is supported in the same Layer 2 broadcast domain. Option B, 192.168.2.0/24, is a private RFC1918-style address but not the ElasticXL default. Option C, 192.0.0.0/24, is not the documented Sync network. Option D is also not correct. The OCR in the uploaded file mangles the address, but the official value is unambiguous:
ElasticXL Sync network = 192.0.2.0/24. Reference topic:ElasticXL Important Notes / Sync network automatic configuration.
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NEW QUESTION # 46
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