2026 Valid 112-57 Exam Updates - 2026 Study Guide [Q11-Q36]

2026 Valid 112-57 Exam Updates - 2026 Study Guide

112-57 Certification - The Ultimate Guide [Updated 2026]

NEW QUESTION # 11
Sandra, a hacker, targeted Johana, a software professional, to steal her banking details. She started sending frequent, random pop-up messages with malicious links to her social media page. Johana accidentally clicked on a link, causing a malicious program to get installed in her system. Subsequently, when Johana attempted to access her banking website, the URL redirected her to a malicious website controlled by Sandra. Johana entered her banking credentials on the fake website, which Sandra then captured.
Identify the type of attack performed by Sandra on Johana.

• A. Pharming
• B. Shoulder surfing
• C. Dumpster diving
• D. Tailgating

Answer: A

Explanation:
The scenario describes a victim beingredirected from a legitimate banking URL to a fraudulent websitewithout intending to visit it, after malware is installed on the system. This behavior is characteristic ofpharming, an attack in which an adversarycauses redirectionto a malicious destination even when the user types the correct address or clicks a legitimate bookmark. In digital forensics references, pharming is commonly achieved by manipulatingname resolution or routing mechanisms, such as altering the localhosts file, changingDNS server settings, poisoning DNS responses, modifying browser proxy settings, or installing malware that intercepts and rewrites web requests. The key forensic indicator is that the victim's request for the real domain is transparently diverted to attacker-controlled infrastructure, where credentials are harvested through a convincing spoofed login page.
The other options do not match the redirection-and-fake-site mechanism.Tailgatingis physical access abuse (following someone into a secure area).Dumpster divinginvolves retrieving sensitive information from discarded materials.Shoulder surfingis observing credentials by watching the victim type. Because the essential action here ismalicious redirection to a fake site to steal credentials, the correct answer isPharming (A).

NEW QUESTION # 12
Which of the following techniques is defined as the art of hiding data "behind" other data without the target's knowledge, thereby hiding the existence of the message itself?

• A. Program packer
• B. Steganography
• C. Password cracking
• D. Artifact wiping

Answer: B

Explanation:
Steganographyis the technique of concealing a messagewithin another seemingly harmless carrier(such as an image, audio file, video, or document) so that theexistence of the hidden message is not apparentto an observer. Digital forensics references distinguish steganography from encryption: encryption scrambles content but usually leaves visible indicators that protected data exists (ciphertext), while steganography aims to make the communication look ordinary, reducing suspicion. In practice, steganographic methods often embed data into redundant or less perceptible parts of the carrier, such as modifying least significant bits in pixel values, altering frequency components in audio, or inserting data into metadata or unused file structures.
The other options do not match the definition.Password crackingis an access technique to recover authentication secrets, not a concealment method.Artifact wipingis an anti-forensics method intended to remove traces (logs, files, slack space remnants), but it does not "hide behind" other data-it destroys or overwrites evidence.Program packerscompress/obfuscate executables to hinder static analysis and detection, but they still produce an executable whose presence is evident; they do not primarily hide messages inside benign files. Therefore, the described "hiding the existence of the message itself" corresponds toSteganography (C).

NEW QUESTION # 13
John, a forensic officer, was working on a criminal case. He employed imaging software to create a copy of data from the suspect device on a storage medium for further investigation. For developing an image of the original data, John used a software application that does not allow an unauthorized user to alter the image content on storage media, thereby retaining an unaltered image copy.
Identify the data acquisition step performed by John in the above scenario.

• A. Planned for contingency
• B. Enabled write protection on the evidence media
• C. Sanitized the target media
• D. Validated data acquisition

Answer: B

Explanation:
The scenario emphasizes that John used an application (or mechanism) thatprevents alteration of the acquired image content, ensuring the image remainsunalteredand protected from unauthorized modification. In forensic acquisition standards, this corresponds toenabling write protectionduring imaging-commonly implemented using awrite blocker(hardware or controlled software write-protection) to prevent any writes to the source evidence and, where applicable, to protect the integrity of the evidence copy from accidental or unauthorized changes. The purpose is to preserve evidential integrity by ensuring that neither the original media nor the forensic image is modified during handling, analysis preparation, or transfer.
"Validated data acquisition" refers to confirming the image is an exact duplicate, typically by computing and comparing cryptographic hashes (e.g., MD5/SHA) of the source and the acquired image. While validation is essential, the question specifically highlightspreventing alteration, not verifying equality. "Sanitized the target media" is the step of wiping/clearing the destination drive before acquisition to avoid contamination, which is not what is described. "Planned for contingency" relates to operational planning for unexpected issues (equipment failure, encryption, power loss), not integrity protection. Therefore, the best match isEnabled write protection on the evidence media (A).

NEW QUESTION # 14
Which of the following NTFS system files contains a record of every file present in the system?

• A. $mft
• B. $quota
• C. $volume
• D. $logfile

Answer: A

Explanation:
In the NTFS file system, theMaster File Table (MFT)is the core metadata structure that tracksevery file and directoryon the volume. NTFS implements this as a special system file named$MFT(shown here as$mft).
Each file or folder on an NTFS partition is represented by at least oneMFT record entry, which stores essential metadata such as file name(s), timestamps, security identifiers/ACL references, file size, attributes, and pointers to the file's data runs (or, for very small files, the content can be stored resident inside the record). Because it is the authoritative "index" of file objects, forensic examiners rely heavily on $MFT to reconstruct user activity and file history, including evidence of deleted files (when records are marked unused but remnants of attributes may remain) and timeline building from timestamp attributes.
The other options are different NTFS metadata files with narrower purposes:$LogFilerecords NTFS transaction logs to support recovery,$Volumestores volume-level information (like version/label), and$Quotamanages disk quota tracking. None of these contain a record for every file on the system.
Therefore, the NTFS system file that contains a record of every file present is$mft (B).

NEW QUESTION # 15
Identify the malware analysis technique in which the investigators must take a snapshot of the baseline state of the forensic workstation before malware execution.

• A. Monitoring host integrity
• B. Online malware scanning
• C. String search
• D. File fingerprinting

Answer: A

Explanation:
The technique described-taking a snapshot of the baseline state of the forensic workstation before executing malware-aligns withMonitoring host integrity. In malware forensics, investigators often perform controlled execution (dynamic analysis) and need a reliable way to identifywhat changed on the systemas a direct result of the malware run. Host integrity monitoring is a structured approach where the examiner first captures aknown-good baselineof critical system elements such as file system state (key directories, system binaries), registry/configuration state, running services, installed drivers, scheduled tasks, and sometimes hash inventories of important files. After malware execution, the investigator captures a second snapshot and performsdifferential comparisonto determine newly created/modified files, persistence mechanisms, configuration changes, dropped payloads, and tampering attempts.
This baseline-before/after comparison is fundamental for attributing changes to the sample, supporting repeatability, and documenting evidence in a defensible manner. The other options do not require a workstation baseline snapshot in this sense:online malware scanningchecks a file against signatures/reputation services;string searchextracts readable strings from binaries; andfile fingerprintingtypically refers to hashing to uniquely identify a file, not system-wide state comparison. Therefore, the correct answer isMonitoring host integrity (B).

NEW QUESTION # 16
While investigating a web attack on a Windows-based server, Jessy executed the following command on her system:
C:> net view <\10.10.10.11>
What was Jessy's objective in running the above command?

• A. Check whether sessions have been opened with other systems
• B. Check file space usage to look for a sudden decrease in free space
• C. Review file shares to ensure their purpose
• D. Verify the users using open sessions

Answer: C

Explanation:
The Windowsnet view \\<computer>command is used to enumerateshared resources(SMB shares) that a remote Windows system is publishing. When Jessy runsnet view \\10.10.10.11, her goal is to retrieve a list of the target host's visible shares-such as administrative shares (e.g.,C$,ADMIN$) and any custom shares created for departments, applications, or users. In forensic and incident-response practice, this is important because attackers commonly use SMB shares forlateral movement,staging tools,dropping payloads, andexfiltrating data. By reviewing the shares exposed by a suspected server, the investigator can quickly identify unexpected or overly permissive shares, locate potential repositories of web content or logs, and determine whether a compromised web server is also exposing file resources that expand the attacker's options.
The other options map to different commands and artifacts: disk space usage is checked with storage utilities (notnet view), open sessions are examined with commands likenet session, and identifying users accessing files typically involvesnet fileor server auditing logs. Therefore, Jessy's objective was toreview file shareson the remote host.

NEW QUESTION # 17
Which of the following Windows system files is created in the system drive after OS installation to support the internal functions and system service dispatch stubs to executive functions?

• A. Kernel32.dll
• B. Ntoskrnl.exe
• C. Win32k.sys
• D. Ntdll.dll

Answer: D

Explanation:
Ntdll.dllis the Windows user-mode system library that provides manyinternal NT functions(commonly exposed as "NT Native API" routines such asNt*/Zw*) and, critically, contains thesystem service dispatch stubsused by user-mode code to transition into kernel mode for operating system services. In standard Windows architecture, most user-mode applications call higher-level APIs (for example, Win32 APIs inKernel32.dll), which then ultimately rely onNtdll.dllto perform the final step of invoking the kernel through these system call stubs. This is whyNtdll.dllis a core component loaded into nearly every process and is tightly associated with the boundary between user mode and theexecutivecomponents of the OS.
From a forensics viewpoint, understandingNtdll.dllmatters because it is central to how processes request privileged services, and it is frequently referenced in analyses of process execution, API call chains, and certain user-mode hooking techniques used by malware or anti-forensics tools.
By contrast,Ntoskrnl.exeis the kernel image itself (core kernel/executive),Win32k.sysis a kernel-mode graphics/windowing subsystem component, andKernel32.dllprovides higher-level Win32 APIs rather than the primary system-call stub layer. Hence,Ntdll.dll (C)is the correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 18
Alice and John are close college friends. Alice frequently sends emails to John attaching her pics with friends.
One day, Alice sent an email to John describing all the details related to the final year project without specifying the actual purpose. John missed the message as he frequently receives emails from her and did not arrive for a project seminar.
Which of the following email fields could Alice have used in the above scenario to highlight the importance of the email?

• A. Subject
• B. Date
• C. Bcc
• D. Cc

Answer: A

Explanation:
TheSubjectfield is the primary email header element used to communicate thepurpose and urgencyof a message at a glance. Digital forensics training emphasizes that email messages consist ofheaders(routing and descriptive metadata) and abody(content). Among user-visible header fields, the Subject line is specifically intended to summarize what the email is about, helping recipients prioritize and correctly interpret the message without opening it. In the scenario, John routinely receives casual emails from Alice (often with pictures). When Alice sent a project-related email "without specifying the actual purpose," John treated it like routine mail and overlooked its significance. A clear, descriptive subject such as "Final Year Project Seminar
- Attendance Required" would have flagged the message as time-sensitive and different from her usual emails, reducing the chance it would be missed.
The other options do not serve this purpose.Dateis automatically assigned and mainly supports ordering and timeline reconstruction rather than highlighting importance.CcandBcccontrol who receives copies and can affect visibility or secrecy, but they do not summarize intent for the recipient. Therefore, the field best suited to highlight importance isSubject (A).

NEW QUESTION # 19
Which of the following types of phishing attacks allows an attacker to exploit instant messaging platforms by employing IM as a tool to spread spam?

• A. Spimming
• B. Spear phishing
• C. Pharming
• D. Whaling

Answer: A

Explanation:
Spimmingis defined in digital forensics and cybercrime references asspam over instant messaging (IM). It is a social-engineering variant where attackers use instant messaging platforms (and sometimes chat apps) to deliver unsolicited bulk messages containing malicious links, fraudulent offers, credential-harvesting lures, or malware downloads. Because IM messages are often delivered in real time and can appear to come from known contacts (via compromised accounts), spimming can achieve higher click-through rates than traditional email spam. For investigators, spimming incidents commonly leave artifacts such as chat logs, message timestamps, sender identifiers, embedded URLs, and sometimes downloaded payload traces on the endpoint.
These artifacts help establish attacker infrastructure (domains, IPs), victim interaction (click events, file creation), and timeline correlation with network logs.
The other options do not match the "IM as a tool to spread spam" description.Whalingtargets high-profile individuals via highly tailored phishing, typically email-based.Pharmingredirects users to fraudulent websites (often via DNS or host-file manipulation) without relying on bulk IM spam.Spear phishingis targeted phishing toward specific individuals or groups, not necessarily IM spam. Therefore, the phishing/spam attack that exploits instant messaging platforms isSpimming (C).

NEW QUESTION # 20
Sarah, a forensic investigator, is working on a criminal case. She was provided with all the suspect devices.
Sarah employs an imaging software tool for duplicating the original data from the suspect devices. However, the tool she employed failed to image the data as the suspect version of the drive was very old and incompatible with imaging software. Hence, Sarah used an alternative data acquisition technique and succeeded in imaging the data.
Which of the following types of data acquisition techniques did Sarah employ in the above scenario?

• A. Logical acquisition
• B. Bit-stream disk-to-disk
• C. Bit-stream disk-to-image-file
• D. Sparse acquisition

Answer: B

Explanation:
The key detail is that Sarah'simaging softwarecould not acquire the device because the drive wasvery old and incompatiblewith the software-based approach. In such situations, forensic practice recommends switching to an acquisition method that isless dependent on the operating system or specific imaging application compatibility, while still producing a forensic-accurate duplicate.Bit-stream disk-to-diskacquisition (also called forensic cloning) creates asector-by-sectorcopy of the entire source drive directly onto another physical drive. This method is commonly performed using dedicated duplicators or hardware-assisted workflows that can interface with legacy media more reliably than certain disk-to-image software utilities.
Sparse acquisition would intentionally capture only selected portions of a disk (used to reduce time/storage), which does not fit the goal of "succeeded in imaging the data" after a failure due to incompatibility. Logical acquisition captures only active files/folders through the file system and is not the preferred alternative when full forensic imaging is required, especially in criminal cases. Bit-stream disk-to-image-file is still software
/container dependent and is essentially what failed initially. Therefore, the most appropriate alternative that explains success with an older incompatible drive isBit-stream disk-to-disk (D).

NEW QUESTION # 21
Which of the following tools can be used by an investigator to analyze the metadata of files in a Windows- based system?

• A. Bulk Extractor
• B. Tor browser
• C. Paraben P2 Commander
• D. IECachesView

Answer: A

Explanation:
Bulk Extractoris a digital forensics utility specifically designed to scan storage media (or forensic disk images) and automatically extractstructured artifacts and metadata-like featureswithout relying strictly on file system parsing. In Windows investigations, it is commonly used to identify and pull out items such as email addresses, URLs, domain names, credit card patterns, timestamps, GPS coordinates, and other feature records that can be treated as metadata indicators during triage and deep analysis. Because it works by scanning raw data blocks and producing feature reports, it can recover useful information even when files are deleted, partially corrupted, or when file system structures are damaged-conditions frequently encountered in forensic cases. Investigators use its outputs to correlate user activity, locate sensitive data exposure, and identify evidence-rich regions for further examination with file-level tools.
The other options do not match the requirement of analyzing file metadata broadly.Tor browseris an anonymity-focused web browser, not a forensic metadata analyzer.IECachesViewis a niche utility for viewing Internet Explorer cache/history artifacts rather than general file metadata analysis.Paraben P2 Commandertargets peer-to-peer investigations and related artifacts, not general metadata extraction across files. Therefore, the correct tool for analyzing metadata-like artifacts on a Windows-based system isBulk Extractor (A).

NEW QUESTION # 22
Kane, an investigation specialist, was appointed to investigate an incident in an organization's network. In this process, Kane executed a command and identified that a network interface is running in the promiscuous mode and is allowing all incoming packets without any restriction.
In the above scenario, which of the following commands did Kane use to check whether the network interface is set to the promiscuous mode?

• A. ifconfig <interface name>
• B. netstat -i
• C. ipconfig <interface name>
• D. nmap -sT localhost

Answer: A

Explanation:
Promiscuous mode is a network interface configuration in which the NIC passesall observed framesto the operating system, not only frames addressed to that host's MAC address. In investigations, this matters because promiscuous mode is commonly enabled bypacket sniffers, certain intrusion tools, or misconfigured monitoring software, and it can indicate covert traffic capture on a host.
On UNIX/Linux systems, the traditional command used to view interface flags and status isifconfig < interface name>. When an interface is set to promiscuous mode,ifconfigdisplays aPROMISCflag in the interface's status line, allowing an investigator to confirm whether the NIC is accepting all frames. This directly matches Kane's goal of checking if the interface is running in promiscuous mode.
The other commands do not provide this specific interface flag.nmap -sT localhostscans for open TCP ports, not interface modes.ipconfigis a Windows command (and does not take an interface name in that form to show PROMISC status), and it primarily reports IP configuration.netstat -ishows network interface statistics (packets, errors, drops) but typically does not explicitly indicate promiscuous mode. Therefore, the correct command isifconfig <interface name> (C).

NEW QUESTION # 23
David, a cybercriminal, targeted a community and initiated anti-social campaigns online. In this process, he used a layer of the web that allowed him to maintain anonymity during the campaign.
Which of the following layers of the web allowed David to hide his presence during the anti-social campaign?

• A. World Wide Web
• B. Surface Web
• C. Deep Web
• D. Dark Web

Answer: D

Explanation:
The layer of the web most associated withmaintaining anonymityfor users and services is theDark Web. In digital forensics terminology, the Dark Web refers to services hosted on overlay networks (such as Tor hidden services) that arenot indexed by standard search enginesand are typically accessible only through specialized software and configurations. Its core characteristic is that it is deliberately designed to reduce traceability by routing traffic through multiple relays and separating identifying information (like the user's real IP address) from the destination. This makes attribution and geolocation significantly harder using traditional network logs alone, which is why adversaries often choose it to conduct covert communications, host content, or coordinate campaigns.
By contrast, theSurface Web(the regular, indexed portion of the web) is generally reachable through normal browsers and is easier to monitor and attribute using conventional ISP, server, and platform logs. "World Wide Web" is a general term for web content accessed via HTTP/HTTPS and does not specifically imply anonymity. TheDeep Webrefers to content not indexed by search engines (e.g., webmail, databases, authenticated portals), but it is not inherently anonymizing-many deep web resources are simply private or access-controlled. Therefore, the layer enabling David to hide his presence is theDark Web (C).

NEW QUESTION # 24
Identify the investigation team member who is responsible for evidence gathered at the crime scene and maintains a record of the evidence, making it admissible in a court of law.

• A. Incident responder
• B. Incident analyzer
• C. Evidence examiner
• D. Evidence manager

Answer: D

Explanation:
The role described-being responsible for evidence gathered at the crime scene and maintaining a record that makes the evidence admissible in court-matches the duties of anEvidence manager. In digital forensics practice, admissibility depends heavily on provingintegrity, authenticity, and continuity of possession. The evidence manager ensures these requirements by implementing and documenting thechain of custody, which is the formal, chronological record of who collected the evidence, when and where it was collected, how it was packaged and labeled, how it was transported, where it was stored, and every time it was accessed or transferred. This role also enforces evidence handling procedures such as tamper-evident sealing, secure storage controls, access logging, and verification steps (for example, ensuring hashes are recorded and preserved for forensic images).
Anincident responderfocuses on containment and immediate actions during an incident; anincident analyzerperforms technical analysis and correlation of artifacts; and anevidence examinerconducts detailed forensic examinations on acquired data. While these roles interact with evidence, the specific responsibility for maintaining custody documentation and evidence records to support legal admissibility belongs to theEvidence manager, makingDthe correct answer.

NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following file systems of Windows replaces the first letter of a deleted file name with the hex byte code "e5h"?

• A. EFS
• B. FAT
• C. NTFS
• D. FHS

Answer: B

Explanation:
InFAT (File Allocation Table)file systems (FAT12/16/32), directory entries are fixed-size records that include an8.3 filename field. When a file is deleted, FAT typically does not immediately erase the file's content; instead, it marks the directory entry as deleted by replacing thefirst character of the filenamewith the special marker byte0xE5(often written asE5h). This is a key forensic behavior because it means the file's metadata entry may still be present in the directory table, and the data clusters may remain recoverable until they are reused and overwritten. Examiners can often reconstruct the original filename's first character only through context or by correlating other artifacts, but the remainder of the directory entry (timestamps, size, starting cluster) can still assist recovery.
The other options do not match this mechanism.NTFSuses Master File Table records and marks deletions differently (file record flags and index changes), not by overwriting the first filename byte with E5h.EFSis an encryption feature layered on NTFS, not a distinct file system deletion marker.FHSis a UNIX/Linux directory layout standard, unrelated to Windows disk structures. Therefore, the correct answer isFAT (A).

NEW QUESTION # 26
Which of the following folders of macOS stores all the files, documents, applications, library folders, etc.
pertaining to a particular user?

• A. Home Directory
• B. Time Machine
• C. Spotlight
• D. Finder

Answer: A

Explanation:
In macOS, each user account is assigned aHome Directorythat serves as the primary container for that user's data and profile-specific configuration. This directory typically resides under/Users/<username>/and includes standard subfolders such asDesktop,Documents,Downloads,Pictures,Movies,Music, and crucially the user' sLibraryfolder (~/Library). From a digital forensics standpoint, the Home Directory is one of the most important evidence locations because it holds user-generated content and a large volume of user activity artifacts: application preferences and settings (plist files), browser data, caches, saved state, key application databases, recent items, and other per-user traces. Although some applications are installed system-wide under
/Applications, macOS also supports per-user application storage and extensive per-user data under the Home Directory's Library structure.
The other options are not user-data containers.Spotlightis a search/indexing service (it creates indexes, not a user's complete data store).Time Machineis a backup mechanism that stores versioned backups rather than the live per-user working directory.Finderis the graphical file manager, not a storage folder. Therefore, the folder that stores files and user-specific libraries for a particular user is theHome Directory (D).

NEW QUESTION # 27
Which of the following file systems is developed by Apple to support Mac OS in its proprietary Macintosh system and replace the Macintosh File System (MFS)?

• A. Apple File System
• B. New Technology File System
• C. Hierarchical File System
• D. Filesystem Hierarchy Standard

Answer: C

Explanation:
Apple's original Macintosh computers initially usedMFS (Macintosh File System), which had important limitations, including a relatively flat directory model and constraints that became problematic as storage sizes and file organization needs grew. To address these limitations, Apple introducedHFS (Hierarchical File System)-explicitly designed to replace MFS and provide a truehierarchical directory structure(folders within folders), improved metadata handling, and better scalability for the Macintosh platform. From a digital forensics perspective, this historical transition matters because examiners may encounter legacy Macintosh media or disk images where understanding the file system family helps interpret catalog structures, allocation behavior, and metadata artifacts.
The other options do not fit the "replace MFS" requirement.NTFSis Microsoft's Windows file system.APFS (Apple File System)is Apple's modern file system introduced much later (primarily for SSDs, with features like snapshots and strong encryption support) and it replaced HFS+ in newer macOS versions-not MFS.
Filesystem Hierarchy Standard (FHS)is a UNIX/Linux directory layout standard, not a Macintosh disk file system. Therefore, the Apple-developed file system that replaced MFS isHierarchical File System (HFS), which corresponds toOption D.

NEW QUESTION # 28
Cooper, a forensic analyst, was examining a RAM dump extracted from a Linux system. In this process, he employed an automated tool, Volatility Framework, to identify any malicious code hidden inside the memory.
Which of the following plugins of the Volatility Framework helps Cooper detect hidden or injected files in the memory?

• A. ip addr show
• B. linux_malfind
• C. linux_netstat
• D. nmap -sU localhost

Answer: B

Explanation:
In memory forensics, "hidden or injected" malicious code typically refers toprocess injection,code caves, unbacked executable mappings, or regions of memory that aremarked executablebut do not align with normal, file-backed program segments. The Volatility Framework provides specialized plugins to locate these suspicious patterns.linux_malfindis the plugin designed to detectpotentially injected codeby scanning a process's memory mappings for characteristics that commonly indicate malicious presence-such asexecutable anonymous mappings, unusual permissions (e.g., RWX), and memory regions that contain shellcode-like byte patterns. This is highly relevant when malware attempts to avoid disk artifacts by living in memory or by injecting payloads into legitimate processes.
By contrast,linux_netstatis used to enumerate network connections and sockets from memory (useful for C2 analysis), but it does not focus on injected code regions.ip addr showandnmap -sU localhostare live-system networking commands, not Volatility plugins, and they are not suitable for analyzing a captured RAM image.
Therefore, to detect hidden/injected malicious code in a Linux RAM dump using Volatility, the correct plugin islinux_malfind (A).

NEW QUESTION # 29
A disk drive has 16,384 cylinders, 80 heads, and 63 sectors per track, and each sector can store 512 bytes of data.
What is the total size of the disk?

• A. 43,278,584,320 bytes
• B. 42,278,584,340 bytes
• C. 42,279,584,320 bytes
• D. 42,278,584,320 bytes

Answer: D

Explanation:
In classic hard-disk geometry, total capacity is computed fromCHS parameters(Cylinders × Heads × Sectors per track) multiplied bybytes per sector. Forensic examiners learn this because it helps validate whether an image acquisition size is consistent with the physical disk geometry and to spot anomalies caused by misreported device geometry or capture errors.
First compute total addressable sectors:
16,384 cylinders × 80 heads = 1,310,720 tracks(because each head provides a track per cylinder).
Then multiply by sectors per track:
1,310,720 × 63 = 82,575,360 sectors.
Convert sectors to bytes using the sector size:
82,575,360 sectors × 512 bytes/sector = 42,278,584,320 bytes.
This matches optionAexactly. In practice, modern drives often use LBA and may report different logical geometries, but the forensic principle remains the same: capacity equals the number of logical blocks times the logical block size, and CHS-style values are a structured way to perform that verification.

NEW QUESTION # 30
Which of the following titles of The Electronic Communications Privacy Act protects the privacy of the contents of files stored by service providers and records held about the subscriber by service providers, such as subscriber name, billing records, and IP addresses?

• A. Title I
• B. Title IV
• C. Title II
• D. Title III

Answer: C

Explanation:
Under the Electronic Communications Privacy Act (ECPA),Title IIis commonly known as theStored Communications Act (SCA). Digital forensics and e-discovery references treat the SCA as the key legal framework governing access tostored electronic communications and associated subscriber/account recordsheld by service providers. The question specifically mentions (1) "contents of files stored by service providers" and (2) "records held about the subscriber ... such as subscriber name, billing records, and IP addresses." These map directly to the SCA's two broad categories:content(what a communication or stored file contains) andnon-content records(subscriber identity, connection logs, billing information, IP assignment
/history, and related transactional metadata).
From an investigative perspective, Title II matters because it sets the legal process and restrictions for compelled disclosure-typically requiring different forms of legal process depending on whether the investigator seekscontentversussubscriber/transactional records, and depending on factors like how the data is stored and retention timeframes. In contrast,Title Ifocuses on real-time interception (wiretap-style capture), andTitle IIIaddresses pen register/trap-and-trace style dialing/routing information rather than stored content.
Therefore, the correct title isTitle II (Option A).

NEW QUESTION # 31
Andrew, a system administrator, is performing a UEFI boot process. The current phase of the UEFI boot process consists of the initialization code that the system executes after powering on the EFI system. This phase also manages platform reset events and sets up the system so that it can find, validate, install, and run the PEI.
Which of the following UEFI boot phases is the process currently in?

• A. Pre-EFI initialization phase
• B. Driver execution environment phase
• C. Boot device selection phase
• D. Security phase

Answer: D

Explanation:
In the UEFI/PI boot architecture, the phase that runsimmediately after power-on or resetis theSEC (Security) phase. Digital forensics references include UEFI phases because firmware-level activity can affect the trustworthiness of the platform (e.g., bootkits, persistence, and measured boot artifacts). The SEC phase is responsible for executing the earliest initialization instructions, handlingplatform reset events, and establishing a minimal, controlled execution environment. Critically, SEC prepares the system so it canlocate, verify, and hand off controlto the next stage-PEI (Pre-EFI Initialization)-by setting up temporary memory and foundational CPU/chipset state required for PEI modules to execute.
The wording in the question precisely matches SEC responsibilities: "initialization code executed after powering on," "manages platform reset events," and "sets up the system so it can find, validate, install, and run the PEI." By contrast,PEIfocuses on discovering and initializing permanent memory and producing the Hand-Off Blocks for DXE;DXEloads drivers and boot services; andBDSselects and launches the boot option.
Therefore, the phase described is theSecurity phase (SEC), which corresponds to optionD.

NEW QUESTION # 32
Which of the following tools helps forensic experts analyze user activity in the Microsoft Edge browser?

• A. ChromeHistoryView
• B. MZCacheView
• C. BrowsingHistoryView
• D. MZHistoryView

Answer: C

Explanation:
In Windows forensics, analyzingMicrosoft Edgeuser activity commonly involves extracting and correlating browser artifacts such asvisited URLs, visit counts, timestamps, download references, and cached content indicators. A practical forensic approach is to use a tool that canparse and normalize history artifacts across multiple browsers, because investigations often require comparing activity between Edge and other installed browsers on the same workstation.BrowsingHistoryViewis designed specifically for that purpose: it aggregates browsing history from different browsers and presents it in a unified timeline-style view, which supports rapid triage and cross-validation of user activity.
By contrast,MZHistoryViewandMZCacheVieware associated withMozilla-family artifacts(history and cache), making them appropriate for Firefox-related examinations rather than Edge.ChromeHistoryViewis specialized forGoogle Chromehistory databases and does not target Edge artifacts as its primary source. In forensic workflow terms, a multi-browser history tool is valuable because it helps identify patterns such as repeated access to specific domains, time windows of browsing activity, and correlation with other Windows artifacts (prefetch, jump lists,

NEW QUESTION # 33
Bob, a forensic investigator, is investigating a live Windows system found at a crime scene. In this process, Bob extracted subkeys containing information such as SAM, Security, and software using an automated tool called FTK Imager.
Which of the following Windows Registry hives' subkeys provide the above information to Bob?

• A. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT
• B. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
• C. HKEY_CURRENT_USER
• D. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG

Answer: B

Explanation:
In Windows forensics, the Registry is organized into logical root keys ("hives") that aggregate configuration and security data. The items named in the question-SAM,SECURITY, andSOFTWARE-aresystem-wide registry hivesstored on disk (typically under the system's configuration directory) and loaded at runtime underHKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE (HKLM). Investigators rely on these hives because they contain high- value evidence: theSAMhive stores local account database information (including user and group identifiers and credential-related material), theSECURITYhive holds system security policy and LSA-related settings, and theSOFTWAREhive contains installed software, application configuration, and many operating system settings relevant for program execution and persistence analysis.
Tools likeFTK Imagercan extract these hives (or their live-memory representations) during triage to preserve volatile context and enable offline parsing while maintaining evidentiary integrity. The other root keys do not match these specific hives:HKEY_CURRENT_USERis per-user profile data, HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIGreflects current hardware profile, andHKEY_CLASSES_ROOTis primarily file association/COM class mapping (largely derived from HKLM\Software\Classes and HKCU\Software\Classes). Therefore, the correct hive root that provides SAM, SECURITY, and SOFTWARE subkeys isHKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE (B).

NEW QUESTION # 34
Bob, a forensic investigator, was instructed to review a Windows machine and identify any anonymous activities performed using it. In this process, Bob used the command "netstat -ano" to view all the active connections in the system and determined that the connections established by the Tor browser were closed.
Which of the following states of the connections established by Tor indicates that the Tor browser is closed?

• A. ESTABLISHED
• B. TIME_WAIT
• C. CLOSE_WAIT
• D. LISTENING

Answer: B

Explanation:
In Windows network forensics,netstat -anois commonly used to correlateTCP connection stateswithprocess identifiers (PIDs)to understand which application created or used a connection. When Tor Browser is actively communicating, outbound circuits typically appear asESTABLISHEDconnections to Tor relays (entry/guard nodes) or local loopback endpoints used by Tor components. After the browser is closed and the application tears down connections, Windows TCP/IP behavior often leaves recently closed sockets inTIME_WAIT.
TIME_WAITis a normal TCP state that appears after a connection has been actively closed. It exists to ensure delayed packets from the old session are not misinterpreted as belonging to a new session and to allow proper retransmission of the final ACK if needed. From an investigative standpoint, seeing Tor-related endpoints transition from ESTABLISHED toTIME_WAITstrongly indicates the sessions were terminated and the application is no longer maintaining live network traffic.
By contrast,CLOSE_WAITusually means the remote side has closed but the local application has not fully closed its socket yet,LISTENINGindicates a service waiting for inbound connections, andESTABLISHEDmeans the session is still active. Therefore,TIME_WAIT (B)best indicates Tor Browser connections have been closed.

NEW QUESTION # 35
Which of the following data acquisition formats supports the Lempel-Ziv-Markov chain (LZMA) algorithm for compression?

• A. Advanced Forensics Format
• B. Advanced ForensicFramework 4
• C. Raw Format
• D. Proprietary Format

Answer: B

Explanation:
In digital forensics, acquisition formats differ mainly in how they store evidence data, metadata, and whether they support features like compression, segmentation, and integrity verification. ARaw formatis a sector-by- sector bitstream image (often called "dd" style) and typically doesnotdefine built-in compression or structured metadata; any compression would be external to the format. "Proprietary format" is not a single defined standard-some proprietary images may compress data, but the option is too generic and not tied to a specific, documented compression method.
The format known in forensic documentation for explicitly supporting modern compression such asLZMAisAFF4 (Advanced Forensic Format 4), which is designed as a next-generation container supporting rich metadata, hashing, chunked storage, and pluggable compression options. AFF4's architecture stores evidence in compressed chunks/streams and commonly associates LZMA with efficient, high-ratio compression while preserving forensic requirements such as repeatable verification through cryptographic hashes.
The option "Advanced ForensicFramework 4" corresponds toAFF4in many exam question banks and training materials. Therefore, the correct choice isC, because AFF4 is the acquisition format recognized for supportingLZMA compressionas part of its standardized capabilities.

NEW QUESTION # 36
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